The Reformed Olive Press

  Why Is Killing Mentioned in the Bible but Not Kidofili@? At first glance, it seems strange—and troubling—that the Bible speaks directly about murder, theft, adultery, and idolatry, yet says nothing explicitly about Kidofili@. In today’s moral framework, Kidofili@ is one of the most heinous evils imaginable. So why the silence? To understand this, we have to approach the Bible not just as a moral list, but as an ancient document written to an ancient audience. The silence on Kidofilia is not permissive—it’s contextual. 1. Cultural Context:  Kidofilia Wasn’t a Norm in Ancient Israel Unlike some of the surrounding pagan cultures—especially Greek and Roman societies where adult men often pursued sexual relationships with boys—ancient Israel had very strict sexual boundaries rooted in covenantal purity and family structure. The Torah’s sexual ethics centered on protecting the household, preserving generational integrity, and avoiding exploitation. While the specific term or conce...

  Romans 2 and Galatians 3:28–29: Gentiles Don’t Become Spiritual Jews—They Become Fully Included in Christ For centuries, Romans 2 and Galatians 3:28–29 have been interpreted through a supersessionist or replacement theology lens—suggesting that Gentiles, upon entering the covenant, become “spiritual Jews.” But this reading doesn't hold. Instead, these texts reveal something far more radical: in Christ, ethnic identity is no longer a factor of covenant qualification, but neither is it erased. Gentiles don’t become Jews—they become co-heirs as Gentiles . This isn’t about merging Gentiles into Jewishness. It’s about the abolition of boundary markers in the New Creation inaugurated and fulfilled by 70 AD, where both Jews and Gentiles have equal access to God’s presence—not through Law, lineage, or transformation into something else, but through union with Christ alone. Romans 2: A Heart Circumcision, Not a Tribal Transfer “For no one is a Jew who is merely one outwardly... But a Jew...

Does Exodus 21:20–21 Support Beating Slaves? Few Bible verses are more misunderstood—and more frequently weaponized—than Exodus 21:20–21. Critics often point to this passage to claim that the Bible endorses violence against slaves. But is that what the passage is really saying? The Passage in Question Exodus 21:20–21 (ESV) “When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be avenged. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be avenged, for the slave is his money.” At face value, this might seem to imply that it’s acceptable to beat a slave—as long as they don’t die immediately. But is that truly what’s being taught? 1. This Passage Is Descriptive, Not Prescriptive This portion of Exodus is part of case law, or casuistic law—a form of legal instruction common in the ancient Near East. These were not moral endorsements, but rather descriptions of legal consequences in specific situations. Just because a law describes what ha...

  Is Slavery in the Bible the Same as American Slavery? One of the most common accusations against the Bible is that it condones slavery. Critics often point to passages in the Old Testament and ask, “How could a good God endorse slavery?” This question deserves a serious and informed response. But before jumping to conclusions, we must ask: What kind of slavery are we talking about? When people hear the word slavery, they often think of the brutal, race-based slavery that existed in the American South—marked by kidnapping, dehumanization, and generational bondage. But that kind of slavery is nothing like what we find in the Bible. God Didn’t Rescue Israel from Egypt to Enslave Others God is not in the business of replacing one set of slave masters with another. He delivered His people from slavery in Egypt—where they were oppressed, exploited, and abused—not so they could turn around and create a society that did the same. In fact, God's laws explicitly forbid the kind of slavery ...

D oes Deuteronomy 22:28–29 Command a Rape Victim to Marry Her Rapist?  One of the most misunderstood and misused passages in the Bible is Deuteronomy 22:28–29. Critics often claim it teaches that if a man rapes a woman, the victim must marry him. Understandably, this interpretation has caused confusion and outrage. But is that what the text actually says? Short answer: No. A careful reading—especially in its ancient Hebrew context—reveals that Deuteronomy 22:28–29 is not about violent rape, and it does not command a victim to marry her attacker. The Passage in Question Deuteronomy 22:28–29 (ESV) “If a man meets a virgin who is not betrothed, and seizes her and lies with her, and they are found, then the man who lay with her shall give to the father of the young woman fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he has violated her. He may not divorce her all his days.” At first glance, the words "seizes her and lies with her" sound like rape. So why doesn’t thi...

The Righteous Lie? Understanding Truth, Deception, and Justice in Scripture “Thou shalt not lie.” That’s what people often assume the Bible says. But look again—it doesn’t. The Ninth Commandment says: “You shall not bear false witness against your neighbor.” (Exodus 20:16) That’s not a blanket prohibition against lying in every circumstance. It’s a specific command about false testimony meant to harm others—particularly in legal or covenantal contexts. That distinction matters. Because throughout Scripture, we see examples of people who lied to protect life, resisted evil, and were commended for doing so. This post isn’t about promoting dishonesty, but about understanding how truth-telling functions in difficult circumstances—and how God’s justice is bigger than legalism. 1. The Hebrew Midwives vs. Pharaoh (Exodus 1:15–21) Pharaoh ordered the Hebrew midwives, Shiphrah and Puah, to kill all newborn Hebrew boys. They refused—and when questioned, they lied: "The Hebrew women are not ...